Considering Mozart's sheer mass of work... and that all of his
symphonies and piano concertos bear some resemblance to each other. Is
it safe to assume he composed the majority of his work mathematically,
or through theorems? I am not trying to diminish his genius, but how
does one become so prolific and sound the same throughout all of his
work without some kind of mathematical formula (The golden section?)
or theorem? Bach was nearly as prolific, except Bach's music isn't
identical or recognizable in the way that Mozart's is. Bach doesn't
seem near as redundant, so Mozart certainly must of used some kind of
system where someone such as Bach did not use a system?
No comments:
Post a Comment